Two new articles every two weeks. Bible Question? E-mail us. THIS ISSUE: "What About Drinking?" (see below) and "Two Questions from Genesis" A much traveled joke asks, "What's the difference between a Catholic and a Baptist?" The answer: "A Catholic will greet you in the liquor store, but a Baptist will hide from you." As with much humor, there's probably more than a grain of truth behind the barb. The Catholic Church teaches that drinking alcoholic beverages in moderation is morally permissible. Traditionally, Baptist Churches have condemned all consumption of beer, wine, and liquor. Baptists predominate in the old South. Catholics predominate in the Northeast. Part of my culture shock in moving to the Northeast is the virtually universal and open consumption of alcoholic beverages. I'm sure it was much more widespread than I realized in the South, but folks hid their drinking from preachers such as I. What is the will of Christ concerning drinking alcoholic beverages? Most will agree that drunkenness is a sin (Romans 13:13; 1 Corinthians 5:11; 6:9-10; Galatians 5:19-21; 1 Peter 4:3). The term "drunken" literally means to be full (cf. Ephesians 5:18-19; where being filled with the Spirit is contrasted with being full of alcohol). The manifestations of drunkenness are loss of moral discretion, good judgment, and even consciousness (Proverbs 23:29-35) and "dissipation" (Ephesians 5:19), i.e., an "abandoned, dissolute life." (Thayer. 82) Those who practice this sin "will not inherit the kingdom of God." (Galatians 5:19-21; cf. 1 Corinthians 6:9-10) In the Northeast no social gathering seems complete without alcohol. The work day ends with "happy hour." Cocktail parties are universal. Does the Lord approve this? The apostle Peter exhorted Gentile Christians to turn from their former lives of "lusts of men" and "sin" to do the "will of God." (1 Peter 4:1-2). Their former, sinful walk had been filled with "lewdness, lusts, drunkenness, revelries, drinking parties, and abominable idolatries." (verse 3) These are the characteristics of a life of "dissipation" (verse 4), and those who so live "will give an account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead." (verse 5) The phrase "drinking parties" in the New King James Version literally means simply "a drinking" (Thayer. 532, so Vine. 1:170; Arndt & Gingrich. 702) and refers to drinking that is "not of necessity excessive." (Trench. 211). The conclusion seems inescapable that the apostle specifically condemns social drinking such as takes place at "happy hours" and cocktail parties. In 1 Thessalonians 5:4-8, Paul informs us we are "sons of day" and "sons of light" and "are not of the night nor of darkness." (verse 5) We should therefore "watch" and "be sober" rather than "sleep" and "get drunk." (verses 6-7). Obviously watching and sleeping are metaphorical, teaching us to always be ready for the Lord's return (Matthew 24:42-51). Lexicographers contend the term "sober" is always used in the New Testament in its figurative sense of "self-controlled." (Arndt & Gingrich. 540; cf. 1 Timothy 3:2; Titus 1:8; 2:2) But it literally means "free from the influence of intoxicants." (Vine. 4:44). For the figure to be true the literal must also be true. Otherwise, the figure is meaningless. If the State forbids you to drink in moderation before driving, since your judgment is thus impaired, how can one who drinks moderately be described as "sober"? To be sober we must be "free from the influence of intoxicants," and to walk in the light we must be sober. It is a fact that alcohol in any quantity dulls moral judgment (Proverbs 31:4-5). We should always strive to keep our moral discernment unimpaired (Proverbs 4:23; 1 Peter 5:8). Of course, there are passages that some think condone moderate drinking of alcoholic beverages. But do they? In Proverbs 31:6-7 King Lemuel's mother advised him to give wine and strong drink to those in bitterness of heart to cheer them. Although the biblical word "wine" can mean either fresh grape juice or alcoholic wine, depending on the context (cf. Isaiah 5:22-23;16:10), here it obviously is used of intoxicating drink. The Old Testament plainly condemned drunkenness (Deuteronomy 21:18-21; Proverbs 23:29-35). It also forbid all use of wine to Nazarites, those separated for God's use alone (Numbers 6:1-4), and denied "wine or intoxicating drink" to the priests when they ministered (Leviticus 10:9-11). Yet this passage, if taken literally, condones drunkenness for those in sorrow. Look at the contrast of the passage. The king needed to keep his mind clear to make sound decisions, so he should not use "wine" or "intoxicating drink." (verses 4-5) The use of such beverages is to dull the mind of pain (verses 6-7). Since Christians are to be sober, the only proper application of this passage to our age would be to condone the use of intoxicating beverages as a medicinal remedy for extreme pain. Furthermore, since this proverb is part of the Old Covenant, although it certainly is an inspired observation on the effects of alcoholic beverages, it cannot be used to determine the will of Christ in regard to drinking (Galatians 5:1-4). If drinkers know nothing else about the Bible, they know Jesus turned water to wine (John 2:1-11). Remember, "wine" can mean either fresh grape juice or alcoholic wine, depending on the context. When Jesus turned the water to wine, the guests had already "well drunk." (verse 10) Jesus gave them an additional 120 - 180 gallons of wine (verse 6). If this wine was alcoholic, the Master helped a bunch of drunks get totally plastered! When He challenged His enemies to name His sin (John 8:46), they could have replied, "You got a whole wedding party passing out drunk!" The context obviously demands that the wine of this passage was grape juice. But wasn't this the good stuff? (verse10). Why do you think "good wine" refers to alcoholic? There is no evidence that the judgment of morally upright Jews was the same as that of our ungodly society. Doesn't Paul includes drinking wine with eating meat as morally neutral practices in Romans 14:21? The term "wine" is here employed in a figure of speech known as synecdoche, the "exchange of one idea for another." (Bullinger. 613). A common form of synecdoche is putting the part for the whole. When John promises, "If we confess our sins. He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins" (1 John 1:9), he is not implying that Christians do not have to repent and pray for forgiveness of their sins as well as confess them (cf. Acts 8:22). "Confess," one condition of pardon for an erring child of God, stands for all the conditions. As verse 23 demonstrates, "drink wine" in verse 21 is used to include all lawful beverages. There is no reason to think it refers to intoxicating wine rather than grape juice. The apostle is simply telling us not to allow food and drink to cause a brother to stumble, be offended, or made weak. But didn't Paul advise Timothy to use wine? Indeed the great apostle did advise his son in the faith, "use a little wine for your stomach's sake and your frequent infirmities." (1 Timothy 5:23). Isn't it amazing how many people have stomach trouble? My son Timothy recently sustained a painful eye injury. I advised him to take the prescription pain medicine the doctor had given him. Do you think I would condone him using prescription pain killers for pleasure? Yes, both otherwise illegal drugs and alcoholic beverages may be used medicinally. That doesn't mean either may be used simply for the pleasure. Even if I admit drinking alcoholic beverages is a liberty, which I do not admit, there are reasons we should not drink. We must preserve our influence for good (Matthew 5:16; 1 Corinthians 10:31-33). Will a friend listen to you teach him about Christ if you have a beer in your hand? Certainly alcohol is an enslaving drug, and we must not be enslaved (1 Corinthians 6:12). Parents, what influence will your drinking have on your children? (cf. Ephesians 6:4).
---------------------------------- Arndt, W.F. and F.W. Gingrich. A Greek- English Lexicon
of the New Testament.
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