Questions
Thanks for the August issue of “Meditate on this things” I urgently need your comments on the following question. A. Can a man who scripturally divorced his wife and married another woman scripturally be appointed as an elder? B. Can a man with one child well trained be appointed as an elder?
Answers
Keith Sharp
My conviction is that both men, if otherwise qualificed, may serve as elders.
A scripturally divorced and remarried man is the husband of one wife (1 Timothy 3:2; Titus 16). He is no longer married to the woman whom he divorced (Notice what is said about the woman who departs from her husband in 1 Corinthians 7:10-11. She is “unmarried.) If the first woman is still his wife, he is a polygamist, and the church should withdraw from him.
The use of the plural “children” is called a “plural of kind” and included a father with only one child (1 Timothy 3:4; Titus 1:6). For example, Sarah said, “Who would have said to Abraham that Sarah would nurse children? For I have born him a son in his old age” (Genesis 21:7), but she had only one child, Isaac. My eldest son has only one child, but if someone asks, “Do you have children?”, he can say “Yes, one son.” The purpose of the requirement of “faithful children” is to prove the man’s ability to rule (1 Timothy 3:5). In some ways it is harder to raise only one child properly than it is to raise several.
Response
Dear Brother, Thanks for your quick response. Does a widow who had married twice or more scripturally a wife of one man? (1 Tim. 5:9; Jhn. 4:18) These are passages i always use to explain “husband of one wife” thinking her past life was the focus. Please. Comment.
Second Reply
Keith Sharp
I consulted six essentially literal translations of 1 Timothy 5:9, and all indicate the past perfect tense of “be” concerning the widow: “having been the wife” (King James Version), “has been the wife” (New King James Version), “having been the wife” (American Standard Version), “having been the wife” (New American Standard Bible), “having been the wife” (English Standard Version), and “has been the wife” (International Standard Version). Obviously this is speaking of her past, since she must be presently a widow and thus not the wife of any man. Death ends the marriage relationship (Romans 7:1-2).
But in 1 Timothy 3:2 and Titus 1:6, the present tense indicated in all six of these translations for the elder. The difference in tense is crucial. This does not rule out a widower who has remarried or a scripturally divorced and remarried man as an elder. Thus, in this regard, 1 Timothy 5:9 is not parallel to 1 Timothy 3:2 and Titus 1:6.
John 4:18 also covers the past (“have had five husbands”) in contrast with 1 Timothy 3:2 and Titus 1:6.
